Lớp 12

Bộ 5 đề thi thử THPT QG năm 2021 môn Tiếng Anh Trường THPT Đầm Hà

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BỘ 5 ĐỀ THI THỬ THPT QG NĂM 2021 MÔN TIẾNG ANH

TRƯỜNG THPT ĐẦM HÀ

1. Đề số 1

Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions

Question 1:

A. employer

B. reunite

C. understand

D. recommend

Question 2:

A. administrative

B. productivity

C. electricity

D. opportunity

Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions

Question 3:

A. explosion

B. conversion

C. precision

D. expansion

Question 4:

A. malaria

B. eradicate

C. character

D. spectacular

Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that need correction in each of the following questions

Question 5: Several people have apparent tried to change the man‟s mind ,but he refuses to listen

                          A                              B                                                   C                                D

Question 6: Some people believe that human being will never use away all the natural

                                                   A                                                           B                 C

resources on earth.

                 D

Question 7: Because vitamins are contained in a wide variety of foods, people seldom lack

                                                  A                     B             C    

of most of them.

D

Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 8: Don‟t forget to ________ the alarm clock for 5 o‟clock tomorrow morning.

            A. ring B. put  C. wind           D. set

Question 9: Books are no longer the only _________ of stories and information.

            A. basis           B. site  C. source         D. style

Question 10: ________ for our health.

            A. One‟s diet is helpful in extra fiber.            B. Helpful one‟s diet is extra fiber

            C. Extra fiber is one‟s helpful diet     D. Extra fiber in one‟s diet is helpful

Question 11: The growth of two-income families in the United States ______ of people moving to a new social class.

            A. has resulted in millions       B. resulting in millions

            C. results of millions               D. millions of results

Question 12: Black, red, and even bright pink diamonds ______ .

            A. occasionally found             B. have occasionally been found

            C. have occasionally found    D. occasionally to find

Question 13: An adviser to both Franklin Delano Roosevelt and Harry Truman, _____ of Bethune-Cook man College.

            A. the founder was Dr, Mary Mcleod Bethune

            B. did the founder Dr, Mary Mcleod Bethune

            C. Dr. Mary Mcleod Bethune, who was the founder

            D. Dr. Mary Mcleod Bethune was the founder

Question 14: Before _______ , they used horse drawn wooden carts

            A. farmers had tractors                       B. farmers have had tractors

            C. tractors owned by farmers D. having tractors farmers

Question 15: The door is unlocked; _______ here last night.

            A. Something strange was happened

            B. Something strange should have happened

            C. Something strange had happened

            D. Something strange could have happened

Question 16: Although he supports the Council, he does not take an active _____ in politics.

            A. affair          B. play C. part D. charge

Question 17: Why don‟t you wear that blue dress of yours? It _______ you.

            A. agrees         B. goes with    C. suits            D. watches

Question 18: Although he claims to have left his job voluntarily, he was actually______ for misconduct.

            A. dismissed   B. dispelled     C. resigned      D. released

Question 19: Because aluminum is lighter and cheaper_______, it is frequently used for high tension power transmission.

            A. as copper    B. more copper            C. for copper   D. than copper

Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the words CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 20: In the twentieth century, drug markedly improved health throughout the world.

            A. supposedly B. noticeably   C. recently      D. consistently

Question 21: The collapse of the stock market in 1929 signaled the beginning of the Depression.

            A. debt                B. rebirth     C. rise  D. failure

Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges

Question 22: David; “ Thank you for the delicious meal”                 – Joan: “ _______ ”

            A. I‟m glad you enjoyed it     B. No problem

            C. Never wonder                    D. all right

Question 23: Susan: “Sorry, Brian is not here” Peter: ” _____________”

            A. Can I speak to Brian, please?         B. Would you like to leave a message?

            C. Can I leave a message, then?         D. Can I take a message then?

Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 24: I didn’t think his comments were very inappropriate at the time.

            A. correct        B. exact           C. suitable                   D. right

Question 25: For example, you can play a ballad, then move on to something more energetic such as rock ‘n’ roll.

            A. languid       B. soft C. ill    D. slow

Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the sentences that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions

Question 26: Mike graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

            A. Mike joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.

            B. If Mike graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.

            C. Although Mike graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.

            D. That Mike graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.

Question 27: Put your coat on. You will get cold.

            A. You will not get cold unless you put your coat on.

            B. Put your coat on, otherwise you will get cold.

            C. It is not until you put your coat on that you will get cold.

            D. You not only put your coat on but also get cold

Circle the letter A, ,B, C or D to indicate the sentences that is closest in meaning to each of sentences in the following questions

Question 28: It seems that no-one predicted the correct result.

            A. No-one seems to has predicted the correct result.

            B. No-one seem to have predicted the correct result.

            C. No-one seems have predicted the correct result.

            D. No-one seems to have predicted the correct result.

Question 29: We can’t deny that all of us made certain mistakes early on.

            A. It can be denied that not all of us made mistakes.

            B. Everyone of us denies that we made certain mistakes early on.

            C. It is true that nobody could avoid making mistakes.

            D. We admit that we could avoid making certain mistakes when young.

Question 30: The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.

            A. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.

            B. The agreement which ended six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.

            C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.

            D. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Broad-tailed hummingbirds often nest in quaking, slender deciduous trees with smooth, gray-green bark found in the Colorado Rockies of the Western United States. After flying some 2,000 kilometres north from where they have wintered in Mexico, the hummingbirds need six weeks to build a nest, incubate their eggs, and raise the chicks. A second nest is feasible only if the first fails early in the season. Quality, not quantity, is what counts in hummingbird reproduction.

A nest on the lowest intact branch of an aspen will give a hummingbird a good view, a clear flight patch, and protection for her young. Male hummingbirds claim feeding territories in open meadows where, from late May through June, they mate with females coming to feed but take no part in nesting. Thus when the hen is away to feed, the nest is unguarded. While the smooth bark of the aspen trunk generally offers a poor grip for the claws of a hungry squirrel or weasel, aerial attacks, from a hawk, owl, or gray jay, are more likely.

The choice of where to build a nest is based not only on the branch itself but also on what hangs over it. A crooked deformity in the nest branch, a second, unusually close branch overhead, or proximity to part of a trunk bowed by a past ice storm are features that provide shelter and make for an attractive nest site. Scarcely larger than a halved golf ball, the nest is painstaking constructed of spider webs and plant down, decorated and camouflaged outside with paper-like bits of aspen bark held together with more strands of spider silk. By early June it will hold two pea-sized eggs, which each weigh one-seventh of the mother‟s weight, and in sixteen to nineteen days, two chicks.

Question 31: What aspect of broad-tailed hummingbird behaviour does the passage mainly discuss?

            A. Mating habits                     B. Selection of nest sites

            C. Caring for the young          D. Migration routes

Question 32: According to the passage, in what circumstances do hummingbirds build a second nest?

            A. If there is an unusually large supply of food

            B. If the nests are destroyed early in the season.

            C. If the winner is unusually warm

            D. If the chicks in the first nest hatch early

Question 33: The word “counts” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____.

            A. numbers      B. estimates     C. estimates    D. estimates

Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is true of the male broad-tailed hummingbird?

            A. It protects the nest while the female searches for food

            B. It is not involved in caring for the chicks

            C. It shares nesting duties equally with the female.

            D. It finds food for the female and the chicks

Question 35: It can be inferred from the passage that the broad-tailed hummingbirds’ eggs and chicks are most vulnerable to attack by ____.

            A. humans       B. insects         C. birds           D. squirrels

Question 36: Which of the following would be a good location for a broad-tailed hummingbird to build its nest?

            A. A thick branch                   B. the longest branch of a tree

            C. A branch near the top of a tree      D. A protected branch

Question 37: The word “Scarcely” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ____.

            A. obviously    B. barely          C. consistently            D. consistently

Question 38: Which of the following was NOT mentioned in the passage as a nest-building material of the broad- tailed hummingbird?

            A. Plant down B. Paper          C. Spider webs           D. Tree bark

Question 39: The author compares the size of the broad-tailed hummingbird’s nest to ____.

            A. a golf ball   B. a spider web           C. an egg         D. a pea

Question 40: According to the passage, how long does it take for broad-tailed hummingbird egg to hatch?

            A. More than six weeks          B. Two to three weeks

            C. One month             D. Less than a week

Circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.

THE TRUTH BEHIND THE DA VINCI CODE

In 2006, Sony Pictures released a remarkable and intriguing film entitled The Da Vinci Code, based on the novel of the same name by Dan Brown. In the film, religious leaders and professors are in a race to discover the secrets of an organization called the Priory of Sion. The biggest secret kept by this organization is supposedly that Jesus Christ and a woman whose name is recorded in the Bible as Mary Magdalene had a child, and that their family 55 line continues to this day. In a TV interview, Dan Brown stated that, in his book, “all of the art, architecture, secret rituals, secret societies, all of that is historical fact.” However, while the Priory of Sion did exist, it’s nothing like the one which is so central to The Da Vinci Code.

The Priory of Sion was started in France in 1956 by a skillful liar named Pierre Plantard. Priory means religious house, and Sion was a hill in the town of Annemasse, where the Priory was started by Plantard and four of 60 his friends. At first, their group fought for housing rights for local people, and their offices were at Plantard’s apartment. The organization promised to benefit the weak and the oppressed, and to do good in general. However, there was a darker side to the Plantard’s Priory.

Plantard actually hoped to use the Priory of Sion to claim to be a descendant of French kings. Between the years 1961 and 1984, Plantard created the enigma of a much more powerful Priory than his insignificant organization. First, in order to give the impression that the Priory began in 1099, Plantard and his friend Philippe de Cherisey created documents, called the Secret Dossiers of Henri Lobineau, and illegally put them into the National Library of France. Next, Plantard got author Gerard de Sede to write a book in 1967 using the false documents; the book became very popular in France. This phenomenon is similar to the popularity of The Da Vinci Code, where a book based on false information or speculation becomes popular. 70

Matters were complicated when in 1969, an English actor and science-fiction writer named Henry Lincoln read Gerard de Sede’s book. Lincoln did not know of Plantard and his schemes, and may have been a victim of the hoax. He seemed to believe what he read, and jumped to even more wild conclusions, which he published in his 1982 book, The Holy Blood and the Holy Grail. He and his co-authors declared as fact that the Priory started in 1099; that its leaders included Leonardo Da Vinci, Isaac Newton, and Victor Hugo; that the Priory protects the descendants of Jesus 75 Christ and Mary Magdalene; and that these descendants ruled France from A.D. 447 to 751. All this was based on reading a novel based on the false facts from documents which were a hoax. Most modern historians do not consider Lincoln’s book to be a serious work of history.

How can we be so sure that Plantard created this hoax? Well, the best witness to a crime is the criminal himself. Over 100 hundred letters between Plantard, de Cherisey, and de Sede, discovered by researcher Jean-Luc 80 Chaumeil, show clearly that they were trying to pull an elaborate hoax. In fact, in the 1990s, Plantard got in trouble with the law, and his house was searched. Within it were found many false documents, most harmless, some of which said he was the true king of France. As a final embarrassment, Plantard had to swear in a court of law that the enigma of the Priory of Sion was the work of his imagination.

Question 41: What does the author hope to show in this passage?

            A. Dan Brown knew his book wasn’t based on fact.

            B. The Da Vinci Code is based on fact.

            C. Sony’s movie The Da Vinci Code is better than Dan Brown’s book.

            D. The Priory of Sion was a hoax.

Question 42: What is true about the real Priory of Sion?

            A. It was started in 1956 by Pierre Plantard

            B. It is connected to the leaders of France.

            C. It has a secret about Jesus Christ and Mary Magdalene.

            D. Its leader used to be Leonardo Da Vinci.

Question 43: Why did Plantard put documents in the National Library of France?

            A. He wanted Henry Lincoln to find them there.

            B. He believed that he knew the truth and wanted to tell everyone.

            C. He wanted people to believe that the Priory began in 1099.

            D. So that Gerard de Sede’s book would sell more copies.

Question 44: According to the passage, who did NOT know about the creation of the Priory of Sion hoax?

            A. Gerard de Sede                  B. Philippe de Cherisey

            C. Pierre Plantard                   D. Henry Lincoln

Question 45: Which claim was NOT made in The Holy Blood and the Holy Grail?

            A. The Priory of Sion began in 1099.

            B. The Priory of Sion protects the descendants of Jesus Christ.

            C. Pierre Plantard created the Secret Dossiers of Henri Lobineau.

            D. Isaac Newton was a leader of the Priory of Sion.

Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks .

When you read something in a foreign language, you frequently come across words you do not fully understand. Sometimes you (46) ______ the meaning in a dictionary and sometimes you guess. The strategy you adopt depends very much upon the degree of accuracy you require and the time at your disposal.

If you are the sort of person who tends to turn to the dictionary frequently, it is (47) ______ remembering that every dictionary has its limitations. Each definition is only an approximation and one builds up an accurate picture of the meaning of a word only after meeting it in a (48) ______ of contexts. It is also important to recognize the special dangers of dictionaries that translate from English into your native language and vice versa. If you must use a dictionary, it is usually far safer to consult an English-English dictionary.

In most exams you are not permitted to use a dictionary. (49) ______ you are allowed to use one, it is very time-consuming to look up words, and time in exams is usually limited. You are, therefore , forced to guess the meaning of unfamiliar words.

When you come across unknown words in an exam text, it is very easy to panic. However, if you develop efficient techniques for guessing the meaning, you will overcome a number of possible problems and help yourself to understand far more of the text than you at first thought likely.

Two strategies which may help you guess the meaning of a word are: using contextual clues, both within the sentence and outside, and making use of clues (50) ______ from the formation of the word.

Question 46:

A. control

B. inspect

C. check

D. examine

Question 47:

A. valuable

B. worth

C. essential

D. vital

Question 48:

A. variation

B. multiple

C. diversity

D. variety

Question 49:

A. Even if

B. Provided

C. Although

D. In case

Question 50:

A. originated

B. extracted

C. derived

D. coming

ĐÁP ÁN

1-A

2-A

3-D

4-A

5-B

6-B

7-D

8-D

9-C

10-D

11-A

12-B

13-D

14-A

15-D

16-C

17-C

18-A

19-D

20-B

21-D

22-A

23-C

24-C

25-A

26-C

27-B

28-D

29-C

30-A

31-B

32-B

33-D

34-D

35C-

36-D

37-B

38-B

39-A

40-B

41-D

42A-

43-C

44B-

45-C

46-C

47-B

48-D

49-A

50-C

2. Đề số 2

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions

Question 1:

A. carry

B. marriage 

C. parrot

D. barber

Question 2:

A. stool

B. bamboo

C. good

D. loose

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in the following questions

Question 3:

A. eternal

B. islander

C. terrorist

D. terrorist

Question 4:

A. optimistic

B. pessimistic

C. inhabitant

D. intervention

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions

Question 5: Deforestation ­­­______ devastative floods in many parts of the world.

            A. starts out    B. makes up    C. brings up    D. results in

Question 6: Factories will ­­­______ largely by robots.

            A. be running  B. running       C. be run         D. run

Question 7: The world people are now aware ­­­______ the importance of environmental protection.

            A. of    B. for   C. about          D. to

Question 8: : Jane couldn’t decide where to go for her holidays. She didn’t do anywhere ­­­______ the end.

            A. in    B. to    C. on   D. at

Question 9: We arrived home late last night. We ­­­______ to wait half an hour for a taxi.

            A. have            B. had C. ought          D. must

Question 10: The search for a new vaccine took priority ­­­______ all other medical researches.

            A. above          B. over            C. to    D. on

Question 11: Great ­­­______ should be given to the conservation of endangered species.

            A. diversity     B. priority        C. opportunity            D. condition

Question 12: Robots will even ­­­______ everywhere in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops, and homes.

            A. seen            B. see  C. saw D. be seen

Question 13: Bring your jacket with you. It ­­­______ get cold in the evening.

            A. must           B. can  C. may            D. would

Question 14: The world’s population will ­­­______ more than 10 billion in 50 years.

            A. reached       B. be reached  C. reach           D. reaching

Question 15: Our country will grow more fruits and vegetables ­­­______.

            A. to export     B. to exporting            C. export         D. exporting

Question 16: People will wear disposable clothes ­­­______ the time and the cost of washing.

            A. avoiding     B. avoid          C. to avoid      D. to avoiding

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

Question 17: He has never had worked hard in his life.

            A. has never    B. his life         C. hard            D. worked

Question 18: Builders have to wear hard caps in work.

            A. Builders have         B. in work       C. hard            D. to wear

Question 19: I can’t find the letter I received from my boss some days ago. I might throw it into the waste paper bin yesterday.

            A. received      B. can’t find    C. into the       D. might throw

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 20: The newscaster have a concise account of tradegy.

            A. complicated and intricate   B. short and clear

            C. long and detailed               D. sad and depressing

Question 21: At last, we succeeded in persuading those boys and girls to join our picnic.

            A. At the end  B. In the end   C. Lastly         D. Endlessly

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions

Question 22: “That is a well-behaved boy whose behavior has nothing to complain about.”

            A. behaving cleverly               B. behaving nice        

            C. good behavior                    D. behaving improperly

Question 23: He mentioned in particular electronics, his major at university.

            A. one and all  B. in general    C. on whole    D. in all

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to the following exchanges.

Question 24: “You haven’t been to the bank today, have you?” “______.”

            A. No, I haven’t. I’m about to.           B. Yes, I haven’t. I’m busy.

            C. No, I haven’t any money.  D. No, I have. I got some money.

Question 25: Peter: “What a great haircut, Lucy!” Lucy: “_____.”

            A. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this

            B. You think so? I think it’s a bit too short

            C. Oh yes, It’s very unfashionable

            D. It’s my pleasure.

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D

2-B

3-A

4-C

5-D

6-C

7-A

8-A

9-B

10-B

11-A

12-D

13-C

14-C

15-A

16-C

17-NA

18-B

19-D

20-B

21-B

22-D

23-D

24-A

25-B

26-D

27-C

28-D

29-A

30-D

31-C

32-B

33-B

34-A

35-A

36-C

37-A

38-A

39-D

40-C

41-D

42-B

43-C

44-A

45-D

46-C

47-B

48-A

49-D

50-A

3. Đề số 3

Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

A trend that has emerged recently is the sharing of childcare (1) __________ between husband and wife. Young couples will try to arrange their work schedules so that they work opposite hours or shifts in order that one parent is always home with the children. Since childcare is expensive, this saves money for the young couple trying to establish themselves and provide a secure environment for the family. Husband and wife may also share household chores. Some fathers are just as capable as mothers at cooking dinner, changing and bathing the baby, and doing the laundry.

In some cases, the woman’s salary is for family (2) __________ and the father becomes the “househusband.” These cases are still fairly rare. One positive trend, however, is that fathers seem to be spending more time with their children. In a recent survey, 41% of the children sampled said they spend equal time with their mothers and fathers. “This is one of our most significant cultural changes,” says Dr. Leon Hoffman, who co-directs the Parent Child Center at the New York Psychoanalytic Society. In practice, for over 30 years, Hoffman has found “a very dramatic difference in the involvement of the father in everything from care-taking to general decision (3) __________ around kids’ lives.”

Another factor has recently been added to the childcare formula. The number of people who work from home nearly full-time rose 23% from the last decade. The (4) _________ of technology – computers, faxes, teleconferencing – has made it easier for at-home workers to be constantly in touch. Will this new flexibility in the workforce bring a positive change for the (5) __________ of children? Only time will tell.

Question 1:

A. abilities

B. possibilities

C. techniques 

D. responsibilities

Question 2:

A. payment

B. expenses

C. fares

D. fees

Question 3:

A. making

B. creating

C. holding 

D. giving

Question 4:

A. accessible

B. accessibly

C. access

D. accessibility

Question 5:

A. well-being

B. security

C. comfort

D. interests

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 6: My first impression of her was her impassive face.

            A. respectful   B. emotional    C. solid           D. fractious

Question 7: We left New York when I was six, so my recollections of it are rather faint.

            A. clear            B. unintelligible           C. explicable   D. ambiguous

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 8: Much to my astonishment, I found his lecture on wildlife conservation extremely interesting.

            A. Contrary to my expectations, his lecture on wildlife conservation was the most fascinating of all.

            B. I was fascinated by what he said in his lecture on wildlife conservation though I hadn’t expected to be.

            C. I hadn’t expected him to lecture on wildlife conservation, but he spoke well.

            D. It was at his lecture on wildlife conservation that I realized I needed to study it.

Question 9: Although he was able to do the job, he wasn’t given the position.

            A. The position wasn’t given to him in spite of his ability to do the job.

            B. He was given neither the job nor the position.

            C. Because he couldn’t do the job, he wasn’t given the position.

            D. He got the position despite being unable to do the job.

Question 10: It is certain that the new cuts will worry the staff.

            A. The new cuts certainly worry the staff.

            B. The new cuts will be certainly worry the staff.

            C. The new cuts are bound to worry the staff.

            D. The new cuts will be bound to worry the staff.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the preposition of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 11:

A. involve

B. control

C. tonight

D. purpose

Question 12:

A. hurricane

B. photograph

C. recommend 

D. separate

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 13: Digital clocks, however precise, they cannot be perfectly accurate because the

                                                                             A                          B                                   C

earth’s rotation changes slightly over years.

                                           D

Question 14: On the floor of the Pacific Ocean is hundreds of flat-topped mountains more

                       A                                                  B         C                                             D

than a mile beneath sea level.

Question 15: My sister told me that she had met my teacher at the supermarket yesterday.

                                 A                                  B                                      C                      D

Read the following passage and mark the letters A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.

Question 16: The topic of this passage is _____________.

            A. infants and allergies           B. food and nutrition

            C. reactions to foods              D. a good diet

Question 17: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ___________.

            A. the vast number of different foods we eat

            B. lack of a proper treatment plan

            C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems

            D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies

Question 18: The word “symptoms” is closest in meaning to ___________.

            A. prescriptions           B. diet C. diagnosis    D. indications

Question 19: What can be inferred about babies from this passage?

            A. They can eat almost anything.

            B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.

            C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.

            D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.

Question 20: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant’s ___________.

            A. lack of teeth                       B. poor metabolism

            C. inability to swallow solid foods     D. underdeveloped intestinal tract

Question 21: The word “these” refers to ___________.

            A. food additives                    B. food colorings       

            C. innutritious foods               D. foods high in salicylates

Question 22: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?

            A. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet          B. Avoiding all Oriental foods

            C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate   D. Eating more ripe bananas

Question 23: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT ___________.

            A. available in book form

            B. verified by researchers as being consistently effective

            C. beneficial for hyperactive children

            D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives

ĐÁP ÁN

1-D

2-B

3-A

4-D

5-A

6-B

7-A

8-B

9-A

10-C

11-D

12-C

13-A

14-B

15-D

16-C

17-C

18-D

19-B

20-D

21-D

22-A

23-B

24-C

25-B

26-B

27-C

28-D

29-A

30-B

31-C

32-B

33-A

34-B

35-C

36-B

37-D

38-A

39-B

40-C

41-B

42-A

43-C

44-A

45-A

46-A

47-D

48-C

49-D

50-D

4. Đề số 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best first each of the numbered blank from 1 to 5

 American folk music originated with (1) _____ people at a time when the rural population was isolated and music was not (2)______spread by radio, records, or music video. It was (3)_____by oral traditional and is noted for its energy ,humor, and emotional impact. The major source of aerly American folk songs was music from the Bristish Isles , but songs from Africa as songs of the American Indians have significant part in its heritage. Later settler from other countries also contributed songs. In the nineteenth century, composer Steven Foster wrote some of the most enduringly popular of all American songs ,(4)______soon became part of the folk tradition. Beginning in the 1930s , Woody Guthrie gained great popularity by adapting melodies and lyrics and supplying new ones as well. In the 1950s and 1960s , singer – composers such as Peter Seeger , Bob Dylan , Joan Baez continued this tradition by „urban’ folk music. Many of these songs deal (5)_____important social issue, such as racial intergration and the war in Vietnam.

Question 1:

A. typical

B. ordinary

C. common

D. popular

Question 2:

A. yet

B. still

C. until

D. even

Question 3:

A. transferred

B. transited

C. transmitted

D. transformed

Question 4:

A. who

B. which

C. that

D. this

Question 5:

A. with

B. in

C. by

D. at

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 6: In order to better understand English, the students incorporated gramar, vocabulary, and speaking in their stidies.

            A. Combined  B. granted       C. scrutinized  D. skipped

Question 7: Some of the rude drivers, on the road today are the ones who will not allow other cars to merge into traffic.

            A. blend          B. concentrate C. secede        D. desensitize

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE  in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following question.

Question 8: Slavery was abolished  in the US in the 19th century.

            A. eradicated  B. instituded   C. eliminate     D. required

Question 9: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.

            A. odd    B. implicit    C. obscure       D. explicit

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet in meaning to each of the following question.

Question 10: “I would like you not to play computer games any more, Amber” said her mother.

            A. Amber’s mother would rather she doesn’t play computer games any more.

            B. Amber’s mother would rather her not to play computer games any more

            C. Amber’s mother would rather she didn’t play computer games any more.

            D. Amber’s mother would rather she wouldn’t play computer games any more.

Question 11: It is a pity that I can’t speak English as native speaker.

            A. I wish I could speak English as a native speaker

            B. I wish I couldn’t  speak English as a native speaker

            C. I wish I can speak English as a native speaker

            D. I wish I have spoken  English as a native speaker

Question 12: The music was so loud that we had to shout to each other.

            A. We didn’t say loud enough for us to hear each other

            B. The music was too  loud that we had to shout to each other.

            C. We didn’t say loud enough to hear each other

            D. Because of  loud music,we had to shout to each other.

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 13:

A. appreciate

B. efficient

C. suspicious

D. apprentice

Question 14:

A. assure

B. press

C. blessing

D. classic

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 15:

A. punishment

B. behavior

C. influence

D. regional

Question 16:

A. acquaintance

B. symbolize

C. etiquette

D. socialize

Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs  correction in each of the following questions.

Question 17: Ceramic can be harder, light, and more resistant to heat than metals.

                                                               A                         B           C             D

Question 18: It is now believed that some damage to tissues may result from exposing it to frequent X-ray                                          A                                                B                            C                     D

Question 19: The museum contains sixth century sculptures, eighteenth century swords and

                                                  A                                                   B

the  dress won by nineteenthcenturyroyal family.

            C                              D

ĐÁP ÁN

1-B

2-A

3-C

4-B

5-A

6-A

7-A

8-B

9-D

10-C

11-A

12-D

13-D

14-A

15-B

16-A

17-A

18-D

19-C

20-C

21-C

22-D

23-D

24-D

25-A

26-D

27-B

28-A

29-B

30-A

31-A

32-C

33-B

34-B

35-A

36-B

37-D

38-B

39-A

40-B

41-B

42-D

43-A

44-B

45-C

46-C

47-B

48A-

49-C

50-A

5. Đề số 5

Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 1: Having (A) finished his tem paper (B) before the deadline, (C) it was delivered to professor (D) before the class

Question 2: I’m (A) very glad that you’ve (B) done  (C) lots of (D) progress this semester.

Question 3: You can (A) enjoy a sport (B) without  joining (C) in a club or (D) belonging to a team.

Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each the following exchanges.

Question 4: John: “Do you fancy a drink?”                        -Catherine: “______”

            A. No, ever!                B. I’m not sure I do. Thank all the same

            C. I don’t want                       D. It is none of your business

Question 5: “Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?” – “______”

            A. Sure, go ahead                   B. Sorry, I’m new here myself

            C. OK. Here’s your ticket      D. Yes, please

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 6 to 13.

Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.

Question 6: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _________ .

            A. tides                       B. storm surges          

            C. tidal waves             D. underwater earthquakes

Question 7: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____ .

            A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides

            B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community 

            C. they are the same as tsunamis 

            D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves

Question 8: The word “displaced” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _________ .

            A. not pleased B. located        C. moved        D. filtered

Question 9: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ________ .

            A. are often identified by ships on the ocean

            B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters 

            C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean 

            D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean

Question 10: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more likely to _________ .

            A. come from greater distances          B. originate in Alaska

            C. arrive without warning       D. be less of a problem 

Question 11: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 17, is one that is _________ .

            A. disastrous   B. expected     C. extremely calm       D. at fault

Question 12: From the expression “on record” in line 19, it can be inferred that the tsunami that accompanied the Krakatoa volcano ___________ .

            A. was filmed as it was happening

            B. occurred before efficient records were kept

            C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon

            D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever 

Question 13: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano

            A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands

            B. resulted in little damage

            C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away

            D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel

Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 14: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problem we are facing.

            A. wealthy      B. kind            C. broke          D. poor

Question 15: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.

            A. buy new belt          B. sell the belt             C. squander     D. economize

Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 16: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans.

            A. divorced     B. married       C. single          D. separated

Question 17: Education is desperately need in many countries with a high percentage of population being unable to read and write.

            A. literate        B. latterly        C. wordy         D. learned

ĐÁP ÁN

1-C

2-B

3-C

4-B

5-B

6-B

7-A

8-C

9-C

10-C

11-A

12-D

13-C

14-A

15-D

16-B

17-A

18-B

19-A

20-A

21-A

22-B

23-B

24-C

25-B

26-A

27-A

28-D

29-C

30-B

31-C

32-C

33-B

34-A

35-A

36-C

37-C

38-D

39-C

40-B

41-A

42-C

43-A

44-B

45-D

46-C

47-A

48-C

49-C

50-D

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